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Finals Format question?

Discussion in 'NBA Dish' started by tierre_brown, Jun 20, 2006.

  1. tierre_brown

    tierre_brown Member

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    Maybe it's just my imagination, but wasn't the Finals game format a 2-2-1-1-1 before this 2-3-2 business?

    I don't know if it's been discussed before, but it seems the 2-2-1-1-1 series would be a little more "fair" in the sense that no team really gets to build momentum at home. Maybe it's just me...
     
    #1 tierre_brown, Jun 20, 2006
  2. OddsOn

    OddsOn Member

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    Yes it was until the Lakers / Celtics matchups in the 1980's. They changed it to minimize the travel burden on the teams and the media. I believe the media started complaining about the amount of travel or something like that.
     
    #2 OddsOn, Jun 20, 2006
  3. IROC it

    IROC it Member

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    It has changed from one to the other and back IIRC.
     
    #3 IROC it, Jun 20, 2006
  4. rage

    rage Member

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    It was to ease the travel burden and as I recall the 2-2-1-1-1 format was much better, the home court advantage did mean something in every single game you play.

    In the 2-3-2 format, after Dallas won the 1st 2 games, everyone thought Dallas would win the series easily because it should have been very hard for Miami to win all 3 middle games.
    Now that Miami leads 3-2, you feel like Dallas is at the disadvantage even though it has 2 games on its home court.
    It just does not seem right.
     
    #4 rage, Jun 20, 2006
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